1 min readApr 28, 2018
Why should Token Value be equal to PQ/MV.
In the classical equation, shouldn’t value included in P?
Also, shouldn’t PQ/MV=1 for definition?
Why should Token Value be equal to PQ/MV.
In the classical equation, shouldn’t value included in P?
Also, shouldn’t PQ/MV=1 for definition?
Economics BSc, Statistics MSc, passionate about new technologies, data science and psychology. https://www.alearrigo.com/